I want to look more carefully at the previous two examples. Both had integrands of the form \(\frac{1}{x^p}\) for some exponent \(p\text{.}\) I showed that \(p=1\) gives a divergent integral and \(p=2\) gives a convergent integral. If \(p
\lt 1\) then \(\frac{1}{x^p} > \frac{1}{x}\text{.}\) If one positive function is larger than another, then the area under its graph must be larger. Since the area under \(\frac{1}{x}\) between \(1\) and \(\infty\) is already \(\infty\text{,}\) the integral of \(\frac{1}{x^p}\) on \((1,\infty)\) must also be \(\infty\) when \(p \lt
1\)
Now, if \(p \gt 1\text{,}\) I want to do the improper integral in general.
\begin{align*}
\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^p} \amp = \lim_{a \rightarrow
\infty} \int_1^a \frac{1}{x^p} dx = \lim_{a \rightarrow
\infty} \frac{-1}{(p-1)x^{p-1}} \Bigg|_1^a \\
\amp = \lim_{a \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{p-1}
-\frac{1}{(p-1)a^{p-1}} = \frac{1}{p-1}
\end{align*}
For, for \(p \gt 1\text{,}\) these improper integrals all converge. However, as \(p\) gets close to \(1\text{,}\) the values of the integrals get very large. \(p=1\) is the crossover point, where the area under the curve becomes infinite.